Post by bibelleser on Nov 22, 2017 10:26:27 GMT
"For the day is near, even the day of the Lord is near, a cloudy day; it shall be the time of the heathen." (Ezk 30:3)
In view of Ezk 30:3 my question now is as follows:
Why did Ezekiel predict that the day of the Lord shall be the "time of the heathen"?
Isn't it the time of Israel instead of the time of the nations?
In view of Ezk 30:3 my question now is as follows:
Why did Ezekiel predict that the day of the Lord shall be the "time of the heathen"?
Isn't it the time of Israel instead of the time of the nations?